NYPD 2nd Trimester Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Misdemeanor Criminal Impersonation via internet or electronic means is defined as which conduct?
• If a juvenile is questioned without a parent present, where must the questioning occur and what must be ensured?
• Which item is NOT listed as a criterion for special category missing persons?
• The "man child" rule requires which action?
• What element distinguishes Robbery from simple Larceny?
• Which behavior is associated with Theft of Services?
• What two elements define 'Facilitating a sex offense with a controlled substance'?
• Which behavior should be avoided to maintain effective communication with children during investigations?
• Under Unlawful possession of personal ID information (F), what quantity triggers the higher misdemeanor charge?
• How are missing persons complaints recorded?
• Notifications for aided cases are made for which condition statuses?
• Which offense is defined as Naked + Intent of being observed?
• For Active Resistance, what is the appropriate charge?
• Under Criminal Trespass (M), which type of real property is included?
• When is a juvenile system report worksheet not prepared?
• Would a juvenile report system worksheet be prepared if the juvenile is arrested?
• Under sexual abuse definitions, which combination qualifies?
• Menacing 2nd Degree (M) involves Threat with Weapons Intended to Cause Imminent Fear of PI/SPI or Death.
• What differentiates Identity Theft (M) from Identity Theft (F) in the described material?
• The Silver Alert system is designed for missing persons who are what age category?
• Endangering the welfare of an incompetent or physically disabled person (F) requires which mental state?
• When a student is arrested in a school setting, what must be communicated to the school?
• Where is the official arrest photograph for juvenile offenders taken?
• When are you required to notify the Special Victims Division?
• Under Arson (M), what triggers Arson Felony?
• Stalking 4th Degree (M) includes causing reasonable fear of material harm to person/family or a third party.
• Which action constitutes unlawful dealing with a child in the second degree (M)?
• Deprive vs Appropriate—Which action meets Deprive's definition?
• Under the Abandoned Infant Protection Act, where can an infant be anonymously left?
• Which act involves selling tobacco to a child under 18?
• Which of the following is included under Grand Larceny (F) as a stolen property category?
• When arresting a child under PINS designation, what is required?
• As part of missing person procedures, what is an explicitly listed action at the scene?
• Aggravated Assault Upon a person less than 11 yrs old (F) is defined as a person 18 or older committing Assault 3 (M) upon a person less than 11 years old.
• In subway safety terminology, a 'Space case' refers to which scenario?
• Before questioning a juvenile, which procedures must be followed?
• When arresting a student inside a school facility, you should request which of the following individuals to assist?
• Which best describes criminal negligence?
• Under the misdemeanor form, which items are included as personal ID information?
• Burglary (F) requires which element?
• Which ages are associated with Murder 2 sub1/2 charges in the juvenile arrest guidelines?
• What characteristics may describe a child who is considered ADD?
• At what age is a person generally charged as an adult?
• Aggravated Criminal Contempt (F) is defined as which of the following?
• Which wandering type is defined as moving aimlessly with no goal?
• Under Grand Larceny (Felony), which item is listed as a category with a value threshold of over $100?
• Which of the following is a formal youth program mentioned?
• How is a juvenile offender treated in terms of jurisdiction and booking?
• How is a runaway defined?
• Public Lewdness 1st Degree (M) is defined by Naked + 19 or more + Juvenile (15 or less). Which offense matches this description?
• Criminal Contempt (F) is defined as which of the following?
• Criminal Mischief (F) requires which mental state and damage threshold?
• An aided case is defined as which of the following?
• Which scenario describes Petit Larceny?
• Intent is described as:
• Sexual Abuse (M) includes cases where the victim is incapable of consenting due to reasons other than age. Which of the following reflects that concept?
• Which describes Obstructing Governmental Administration (M)?
• Reckless Endangerment (M) is defined as Reckless + Risk of PI or SPI with no injury.
• When a juvenile is arrested and charged as a juvenile offender, which action is documented?
• Missing Person report acceptance: which individuals are eligible?
• Which offense area is explicitly labelled as Domestic or Family-related with potential physical contact or injury?
• Which statement describes a prerequisite to charging False Impersonation (M)?
• The juvenile report system worksheet is prepared for which category including PINS?
• Aggravated sexual abuse occurs when a person inserts into PURV which of the following?
• In NYC, the school attendance rule applies to children aged 6 through 17 with specific birthdate conditions. Which option best describes this rule?
• What factors tend to lead teens to have negative attitudes towards police?
• Criminal possession of a forged instrument (M) requires which element?
• Aggravated Harassment (M) involves Using a Communication Device to Cause Fear of PI or Property Damage.
• Which act constitutes felony criminal impersonation?
• Notify the ACS instant response team whenever which conditions occur?
• “Man under” refers to which scenario?
• Are juvenile delinquents charged with the actual crime?
• Which act is explicitly listed as felony criminal impersonation?
• Arson (F) includes which acts?
• Assault 3 (M) includes intentionally causing PI.
• Which statement best distinguishes felony versus misdemeanor forgery?
• Stalking 4th Degree (M) includes causing material harm by following or telephoning or initiating communication.
• Assault 1 (F) includes the Disfigurement element that is intended and caused.
• Aggravated Harassment (F) involves Noose, Swastika, Burn Cross in Public Causing $50 in Damage.
• Under the No Sock Law, which charge cannot be applied when force is used to resist an unauthorized arrest?
• Which option is NOT part of the safeguarding procedure for a DOA residence?
• Which condition is listed as defining sexual abuse?
• Criminal Trespass (F) requires the defendant to knowingly enter or remain unlawfully in a building and possess or know another participant to possess which categories of items?
• What best describes the police youth dialogue program?
• Which forms are specifically used to document a runaway case, including the note about juvenile delinquent status?
• Extortion is described in the material as which of the following?
• Which offense carries the designation 2nd Degree and involves threats to cause fear?
• Which offense requires knowingly entering or remaining unlawfully in a building with the intent to commit a crime, with mere intent sufficing?
• Harassment (V) is defined as Knowingly Aware of Conduct Causing Risk.
• What term is used for the electronic capture of fingerprints and palm prints?
• Which paper work is used for PINS petitions?
• Gang Assault (F) requires three or more participants and the intent to cause PI or SPI with resulting SPI?
• Assault 3 (M) includes Recklessly causes PI/SPI without a weapon.
• Which offense is defined as recklessly causes death?
• Which entities should be notified for a homeless youth under 18 needing shelter when ACS is involved?
• The GREAT program targets which grade levels and what are its two main goals?
• A person knowingly possessing a stolen motor vehicle is charged with which offense?
• In this material, what does the term 'man child' refer to?
• Which condition would prevent release on personal recognizance for a juvenile?
• Arson (M) is defined as which act?
• May release pertinent information involving child abuse to ACS?
• When interrogating a juvenile, what is read and to whom?
• Family abduction is defined as the taking or keeping of a child by a family member in violation of what?
• Which statement best describes accessorial conduct?
• Which form of robbery is included in MARKCCABRAMS?
• Aggravated sexual abuse includes insertion of which into PURV without consent?
• Which offense is listed as 'Aggravated Sexual abuse 1' in MARKCCABRAMS?
• Which program is focused on providing summer employment opportunities for youth?
• Misdemeanor Forgery requires which combination of elements?
• Murder 1 (F) is defined as which action?
• Which has a 1-year statute of limitations?
• Which role is listed as on scene for dead body cases?
• Endangering the welfare of an incompetent or physically disabled person (M) requires which mental state?
• When may you question a juvenile?
• Under the infancy defense, at what age are individuals charged as adults?
• Which statement correctly contrasts the male and female versions of Endangering the Welfare of an Incompetent or Physically Disabled Person?
• Amber Alert 1996 is activated when a child is missing under what condition?
• O.G.A. by means of a self defense spray defines which action?
• Which statement is true regarding the preparation of juvenile report system worksheets when a juvenile is arrested?
• What is the proper sequence of actions when handcuffing or restraining a student within a school facility?
• Aggravated Assault upon a police or a peace officer (F) includes intend SPI with weapon on PO, causes SPI.
• Which action is included in the missing person steps to follow at the scene?
• During a pending ACS investigation, will the child be returned home?
• What is the age range considered for adolescents?
• Criminal Mischief (M) includes which act?
• During missing person scene steps, which action should be taken?
• Gang Assault (F) requires how many participants and what intent?
• Which item is explicitly named as a department resource for youth?
• Are runaways considered PINS?
• Strangulation 1 (F) is defined as which combination?
• Which category is listed as an option in an aided report prepared for RIDAL MOUSE?
• In a man under incident, which agencies should be requested to power off subway tracks?
• During arrest processing of a juvenile delinquent, which documents are prepared?
• When may a juvenile report system worksheet be prepared?
• In accessorial conduct, "acting in concert" means:
• Which age is eligible for alternative restraint?
• Which component of the offense refers to the external physical part of the crime?
• According to safeguarding aided property procedures, what should you do if property is illegally possessed or contraband?
• Which element is part of the definition of a runaway?
• Harassment (M) is defined as Repeatedly Harass or Cause Fear of PI.
• In the special category missing persons protocol, which condition triggers an immediate investigation and search?
• Jostling (M) involves which conduct?
• Which offenses are listed as Arson in the MARKCCABRAMS section?
• Which scenario is described under adjudicated a youth offender for a felony, escapes from custody or juvenile detention facility?
• Stalking 3rd Degree includes causing fear of PI, SPI or death and the crimes of which offenses?
• Sexual Abuse (M) includes cases where the victim is either
• What does CPW 2 pertain to?
• Which records are excluded from being released to ACS when information about child abuse is shared?
• Which action is described as part of safeguarding aided property?
• Criminal Trespass (M) includes which of the following types of property?
• Which item is listed as a department resource for youth?
• Who makes the decision to issue a Silver Alert?
• Which approach is recommended when communicating with children during investigations?
• The worksheet is not prepared for which misdemeanor categories?
• When interrogating a juvenile, who must be advised of rights according to the material?
• Which term refers to a person who assumes the identity of another to obtain goods or services or cause financial loss?
• Reckless Endangerment (F) is defined as Depraved Indifference + Risk of SPI/Death with no injury.
• Assault 2 (F) includes an age-based element where the victim is 65 years or older and at least 10 years younger.
• Within the larceny mnemonic 'A FAT FEET', which term is listed among the larceny-related concepts?
• Which best describes intentional conduct?
• Who will be responsible for conferring with ACS services to arrange transportation?
• When a juvenile is removed to a police facility, which desk must be contacted prior to processing?
• In a shelter situation, which Department of Education contact details must be recorded?
• Escape (F) includes which of the following besides escaping from a detention facility?
• Which offense is listed under MARKCCABRAMS for 14- and 15-year-olds?
• Which statement best defines an 'Attempt'?
• How are abandoned buildings treated under arson definitions?
• A police officer must arrest a juvenile if the child commits which offense?
• Criminal Contempt (M) is defined as which of the following?
• What information must be entered in the activity log and aided report when a child requiring shelter is found?
• Trespass (Violation) requires the offender to knowingly enter or remain unlawfully upon premises.
• During handling of a dead body, who accompanies a person to acquire burial clothes and applies a new door seal on the door jamb when finished?
• Which best describes reckless conduct?
• In aided cases, which passengers may be removed to receive medical aid or assistance?
• Deprive offense involves withholding property ...
• What is the required action to safeguard a DOA residence?
• Felony Forgery involves a written instrument that could include which items?
• Which statement best defines Possession of Burglar's Tools (M)?
• Declaration of death in the protocol is made by which professionals?
• Which action constitutes Forcible Touching (M)?
• Strangulation 2 (F) is defined as which combination?
• Which offense involves violating an Order of Protection and harassing, menacing or causing fear?
• What is the minimum requirement regarding an adult during juvenile interrogation when the parent is not present?
• Knowingly, as a culpable mental state, means:
• Assault on a peace officer, police officer, firefighter or EMS (F) involves intentionally causing SPI.
• Which of the following is NOT considered a missing person?
• Which best captures the difference between Murder 1 (F) and Manslaughter 1 (F) based on intent?
• Which action constitutes Obstructing Governmental Administration (F)?
• Toe TAG placement: toe tags are placed on which items?
• Which factor is explicitly listed as a lack-of-consent condition?
• In NYC, which ages define the school attendance requirement for children?
• What is the defining element of Menacing 3rd Degree?
• Which of the following is explicitly listed as a grand larceny category in the provided material?
• Arrest processing of a juvenile delinquent requires preparing which documents?
• Which charge covers obstructing, impeding or preventing the administration of law through intimidation or physical force?
• Manslaughter 1 (F) is defined as which action?
• Under the MISSING protocol, which age criterion applies to many cases?
• What is the procedure for handling truants when the school they attend is not known?
• What must be delivered to the desk officer along with the toe tag receipt?
• Which of the following scenarios fits the MISSING person category described?
• Which offense category includes symbols like noose or cross burning used in public contexts?
• Which statement best defines personal recognizance of a juvenile delinquent?
• Harassment Via Telephone With No Other Purpose of Legitimate Communication is described in the material. Which offense is this most closely associated with?
• Which scenario constitutes entrapment?
• Trespass (Violation) is best described as which of the following?
• Resisting Arrest (M) is defined as intentionally preventing or attempting to prevent a police/peace officer from effecting an authorized arrest of whom?
• In aided cases on NYC transit trains, which action should be avoided to minimize disruption?
• The penalty described for Murder 1 (F) is which of the following?
• What age and above is not eligible for constructive or alternative methods of restraint?
• Leg restraints MUST be used in which scenario?
• Which items are included in the definition of juvenile misconduct?
• Theft of Services includes which example?
• Which ages are described as juvenile delinquents for certain felonies?
• In the MARKCCABRAMS list, which item includes 'Burglary 1 and 2 sub 1'?
• In missing persons with Alzheimer's/dementia, what is the first step described in the procedure?
• What action defines Criminal Obstruction of Breathing or Blood Circulation (M)?
• What is required for Identity Theft (M) according to the material?
• Which role is listed as authorized on scene for dead human bodies?
• For passive resistance, which charge is most appropriate?
• If an officer has reasonable suspicion that a child is a "man child," what must the officer do?
• Which wandering type describes moving toward a specific goal?
• Escape (F) encompasses which scenario?
• Which term is described as the penal law offense for identity fraud?
• What initiates a PINS petition process?
• Custodial interference (M) involves which scenario?
• Which statement correctly distinguishes Strangulation 2 from Strangulation 1?
• The title name of the person making pronouncement should be entered in which report worksheet?
• Manslaughter 2 (F) is defined as which action?
• Which part of the offense corresponds to the offender's state of mind toward the act?
• The age range of 12-22 is used to describe which group?
• If a person knowingly possesses stolen property valued at $900, the charge would be Criminal Possession of Stolen Property at what level?
• What offense term is 'Sexually motivated felony' in MARKCCABRAMS?
• Which steps are involved when summoning an individual under 18?
• If leg restraints are not used due to the desk officer, what action must be taken?
• Under what age can a police officer return a child to their home if they ran away?
• Which grades does the GREAT program target?
• Escape (M) describes which scenario?
• What is the stated purpose of the penal law?
• Which factor qualifies someone as Aggravated Identity Thief (F) in the material?
• What is the essential element of kidnapping (F)?
• Which felony categories have no time limit under the statute of limitations?
• False Impersonation (M) can only be charged after what condition?
• Discrimination is listed as a separate offense.
• Which action is described by unlawfully tattooing the body of a child less than 18?
• When a person attempts to commit a Class A felony and is charged with an attempt, what class is the charge reduced to?
• Escape (M) refers to which scenario?
• What is the recommended action regarding gunshot victims in a crime scene during an aided case?
• Who has authority to remove a child without consent?
• Does the officer need the youth's consent to send a runaway home?
• In truancy cases, which document is prepared and delivered to the desk officer?
• Appropriate offense is defined as ...
• Who must sign the officer's activity log and youth referral as receipt for the child in truancy cases?
• Which statement best describes how arrest processing for a juvenile delinquent should be documented?
• Petit Larceny (M) involves stealing property valued at what maximum?
• Under CPSP presumptions, which scenario triggers presumption that the property is stolen?
• Which age group, when charged with a felony, requires fingerprinting and photographing?
• Stalking 3rd Degree (M) includes causing fear of PI, SPI or death and the commission of which offenses?
• Access Device is defined as ...
• What will be done with out-of-town runaways?
• What is the summer youth police academy?
• Which level of manslaughter is listed in MARKCCABRAMS?
• Which of the following is NOT one of the four culpable mental states?
• Which are exceptions to the age requirements for attendance?
• Which factor can constitute lack of consent?
• Criminal Mischief (M) covers which scenario?
• Reckless Endangerment (F) mentions Depraved Indifference + Risk of SPI/Death with no injury. This best corresponds to which offense?
• What form is used for truants?
• When a voluntary aide arrives at the scene, what should you do first to determine their suitability to assist?
• In addition to an actual escape, what may be charged under Escape provisions?
• Kidnapping is often committed with which offenses?
• Custodial interference (F) involves which scenario?
• Which offense includes unconsciousness as part of its dimension?
• Under what circumstances must children be fingerprinted and photographed?
• Which forms do you fill out for a runaway?
• Who is defined as a PINS?
• Which statement reflects procedures for handling a dead human body?
• Who should an officer contact if they believe a runaway child is abused or neglected?
• Stalking 4th Degree includes reasonably fear that employment, business, or career is threatened.
• Which of the following is an example of an Access Device offense?